In the comments to a recent post Wes asked if I intentionally say Ukraine, as opposed to the Ukraine. As a matter of fact, I do. While it was perfectly correct to use the definite article when referring to Ukraine in the past, that all changed when Ukraine won its independence in 1991. Many people still use the former variant out of habit, but according to the ‘rules’, we should be calling it simply Ukraine. This has been widely accepted in academic and journalistic spheres.
So, why shouldn’t we say the Ukraine? After all, as my friend points out, we say the Netherlands. True; we also say the Philippines and the United States of America. There are definitely instances when it is necessary to use a definite article in the name of a country. Though there are exceptions to every rule (you can read more about these rules in Richard Hughes’ dissertation abstract), things aren’t as fuzzy in this area as some would make them out to be:
We say the Philippines because it refers to a group of islands. The general rule is that if the proper noun refers to group of islands or mountains, then it requires the definite article. For example, we say the Himalayas and the Hawaiian Islands.
When we refer to the political setup of a country we also use the definite article. That is why we say the United States of America (as opposed to just America), the Russian Federation (as opposed to Russia), and the United Kingdom (Great Britain).
The Netherlands is an interesting example that could possibly be classified as one of those ‘exceptions’. I, however, will argue otherwise. Another instance when we will use the with the name of a place is when we are referring to a geographical area. For example, the Dakota Badlands, the Cameron Highlands, etc.
Names of places which are derived from a geographical name (in the native language of its people, of course) also required the definite article in the past. For example, we used to say the Sudan, the Lebanon, the Gambia, and the Ukraine, because each of these proper nouns referred to geographical feature in the people’s language. However, for some reason English seems to have discarded this rule.
Then why do we still say the Netherlands? The only reason I can think of is that since we have both the words ‘nether’ and ‘land’ in English, it doesn’t seem as foreign to our ears, thus allowing it to fit nicely into the same paradigm with the Dakota Badlands. It makes sense to me, but it might be a stretch. . .
Most English speakers haven’t a clue where the name Ukraine came from, so if there is any truth to my idea of why we can still say the Netherlands, then it gives us one more reason not to say the Ukraine. As a matter of fact, there is still dispute among Ukrainians and Russian as to the proper etymology of the name of the country. Some will argue that it comes from the word окраина (outlying, remote area). Others say that it comes from край (border) or краïна (Ukr: country).
Interestingly enough, an analogous argument exists regarding Ukraine in Russian. However, since Russian (and Ukranian, for that matter) has neither definite nor indefinite articles, the argument centers on the use of the prepositions в and на (both of which can be translated as ‘in’ depending on context).
In Russia, the majority of people tend to say “на Украине”, just as they did in Soviet times before Ukraine was an independent country. I should point out here, that with almost every country (exceptions, like на Кубе, follow many of the English rules mentioned above) Russians will use the preposition в. Ukranians, on the other hand, call for Russians to use the preposition в when referring to Ukraine, so as not to specially set it apart from any other country. There was a great discussion about this on Chris Tessone’s LiveJournal page back in 2002. If you can read Russian, I’d encourage you to check out what was said there (especially Ilya Vinarsky’s and Wlodek’s comments).
Everything that’s been going on in Ukraine recently has put this debate back on the front burner. I’ve witnessed several Russians adamantly declaring their loyalty to the traditional way of saying it, many of them claiming that “в Украине” sounds absolutely horrid. But still, isn’t some degree of protest or disgust characteristic of any change in language? Even though Gramota.ru, the official site of the Russian Academy of Sciences Department of Russian Language, says that “на Украине” is correct, some of the mass media in Russia have already begun to use в.
The controversiality of this issue isn’t going to die any time soon. Some Ukrainians may assert that Russia isn’t fully recognizing their country’s independence if it doesn’t use the same preposition as referring to other countries. Some Russians may even accuse the Ukrainians of trying to change Russian grammar.
Still, humans are creatures of habit and if any change is going to take place in language, it will take time before it becomes the norm. This is still a relatively young example right now, but, as wlodek predicts in Chris’ discussion, “In about 20 years students will altogether forget that the name of our country [Ukraine] was written with a definite article.”
Responses to “No definite article for Ukraine”
December 9th, 2004 at 7:14 am
I recently discussed this issue with some of my advanced students. They found the whole issue absurd (we discussed English article use).
I do think your reasoning of “the Netherlands” is a stretch. Ineed, before I started studying languages and thinking about words in general, I never thought about the name of the country nor what it meant. I merely said what sounded right. Why do we say “The Hague?” Why don’t we say “The Baton Rouge?”
I think it’s absurd for Ukrainians to think they aren’t recognized as a sovereign nation because of preposition usage.
Although it was said на Украине in Soviet times, did we they на Казахстане or на Литве? I think the answer is no…but that implies they used “в”. So, since they used that preposition then, and are still using it now, does that mean that those countries’ sovereignty are also undermined? Should the preposition used be switched to “на” to linguistically distance them from history? |PEDANTICS & ABSURDITY|
In |my| English, “the Ukraine” is correct and will continue to be correct probably until I die. Most English speakers have no such bias or concept of Ukrainians as second-class citizens (or lower than Russians), so I think there’s no arguement there. Just as we don’t think of those from the Netherlands or the Federated States of Micronesia to be any lower. The UNION of Soviet Socialist Republics may be a thing of the past, but language takes much longer to change than a political regime.
I will continue to say “на Украине”.
December 9th, 2004 at 11:45 am
Wes, if you determine your grammar rules by what sounds good to your ears, then I suppose that ‘the Ukraine’ will be correct for you until you die. Or, perhaps after hearing everyone saying ‘Ukraine’ you will eventually assimilate
The problem with saying this today is that the same rules by which we originally decided to use the definite article now tell us not to use it. In other words, it’s not the rules that have changed, it’s the place that has changed.
If you take a look at the Oxford Dictionary of English, Encyclopedia Britannica, CIA World Factbook, or any newspaper in English, you’ll see that the article isn’t used anymore.
I never said that an English speaker is inferring that Ukrainians are ’second-class citizens’ by saying ‘the Ukraine’. That is an extreme argument (which I don’t really buy in the first place) that some may use regarding the Russian preposition issue. In my opinion, in English, if a person says ‘the Ukraine’ they are just showing ignorance to the change in political status of that country.
Also, of course we don’t think of folks from the Netherlands or The Federated States of Micronesia to be ‘lower’ on the totem pole by using a definite article in their country names. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics and the Federated States of Micronesia refer to the political set-up (see my explanation above) of the country, so it’s perfectly correct to use the article in these cases.
Language changes on many levels, Wes. I guess you’re just with the resistance on this one. Still, since we are in the transition period I suppose I can afford you a little grace.
December 9th, 2004 at 5:01 pm
I don’t feel very strongly about this issue, and yes, you are right about me agreeing to use what sounds right. Maybe I will change in the future and you’ll win out, after all.
And of course, I wasn’t implying that you feel negatively towards any people, just pointing out that the arguments of those who think they are discriminated based on language are a little neurotic (perhaps?).
In other words, it just irks me when we avoid problems like “sexist language” by switching from a non-gender specific word such as “postman” to using “postman” and “postperson” and “postwoman”. I don’t think it’s necessarily sexist to use the former and none of the latter examples. Why do we need “womankind” when “mankind” doesn’t refer to the group of humans with male reproductive organs?
I’m not arguing…just discussing.
December 9th, 2004 at 6:19 pm
A hundred years ago, “ukraine” was sometimes used as a common noun meaning “frontier” or “frontier land,” usually in expressions like русские украйны — “Russian” or rather “Ruthenian frontier lands” or “frontier areas of Rus’.” Referring to the 16th and 17th centuries, these meant large, sparcely populated steppe areas south of Poland and Muscovy, north of Crimean Tatary and other Muslim-dominated principalities, home to various Cossack hosts. When English absorbed “Ukraine,” it was probably often used in the sense of “frontier,” but present-day Ukraine, even from a purely geographical perspective, is not limited to the former buffer zone between Christianity and Islam.
December 11th, 2004 at 5:54 am
I see no reason why Ukrainians (who don’t even have articles, definite or otherwise) should be able to dictate article use in English. To me, it’s on a par with the Greeks trying to force us to say “Former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia” instead of “Macedonia.” If the unarticled form spreads and becomes universal in a couple of decades, so be it, but there’s no moral/ethical issue here. Ukraine’s independence is a fine thing, but this is irrelevant to it.
December 12th, 2004 at 12:00 am
Why can’t Russian speakers in Ukraine use one variant and be satisfied that the majority of Russians want to stick with the ‘old’ way?
One thing I’ve always been amazed by is how little dialectical variation there is among Russian speakers spread all through out Europe and Asia. Of course you can notice some variation if you go to the Volga regions or Siberia, but it doesn’t even compare to the variations of English that you’ll find in the South, Midwest, and Eastern coast of the USA or English-speaking countries of Europe. From my understanding, the uniformity of Russian has to do with strong centralization during the USSR. I would love to know more about this if anyone has any information.
December 12th, 2004 at 7:33 pm
My current pet theory is that Ukrainians can only have near-zero influence on English as mother tongue but some on English as lingua franca. In other words, they can make Russians spell Kyiv when they write in English. ![]()
December 13th, 2004 at 1:13 am
Tom, you’ve touched a very interesting topic! it was always very hard for me, for example, to talk to the Irish or the Afro-Americans, who really have different languages! and i’ve always felt glad that Russian is nearly the same everywhere (though there certainly are some differences, especially between Moscow and Petersburg - you may know about бордюр and поребрик, подъезд and парадная). but still there’re no such prominent differences in pronuncation.
actually, i don’t agree with you that such uniformity roots in the USSR. i don’t believe that Volgian “o” of the 18th-19th century would differ much from the contemporary pronuncation. moreover, Russian hasn’t changed pronuncation but the language itself, the words. if you read the Dal’ dictionary, you will find many words that were relevant for some regions of the Russian Empire. if you read the books of the 18th century, you will find the words that aren’t used anymore (you’ll find more of them in the earlier books and chronicles). though the pronuncation has always been the same, to my mind. you can also see it if you compare how some similar words are read in Ukranian, Bulgarian, Belorussian languages, for example. maybe it’s a characteristic of Slavic languages… =)
July 4th, 2008 at 11:49 pm
We have a similar pattern in Poland:
* na Litwie, na Łotwie / v Polšče, v Koronie, v Inflantach
* na Białorusi, na Ukraiinie / v Rosji
* na Słovacji / v Čechach
* na Vengřech / v Prusiech
The surrounding countries that were perceived as being dependent or closely related to us got would go with “na” (”on”).
* na Kubie, na Madagaskaře, na Maltie, na Cypře / v Irlandji, v Islandji
I do not know the reason why Ireland and Iceland make exceptions here. Is “*the Iceland” attested in English?
Also, I cannot agree that articles are absent from Ukrainian. The definite article is always attached to inflected forms of adjectives (and it is the only place where it survived).

December 8th, 2004 at 7:59 pm
what i want to say is the following:
last year, when i was preparing to enter a university, a had a tutor, a very respected teacher of Russian from Moscow State Linguistic University (МГЛУ). and what she told me was that saying “на Украине” is absolutely correct. it’s a tradition of our language. i agreed with her that the Ukrainians shouldn’t intend to change OUR grammar, our rules.
but on the other hand, you may’ve noticed that modern journalists tend to say “в Украине”. some people say it’s “politically correct in the nowadays situation”. moreover, even diplomats, who are well-known for being very accurate with the language, are now advised to say “в Украине” during some important meetings… but i still don’t approve of that. i think we should keep the tradition. тем более, что “в Украине” ну просто не звучит!!! =]